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Private Credit Real Yield

What a private credit fund actually pays a taxable investor

A credit fund is marketed on the yield of the loans it has made.

This instrument needs JavaScript. The methodology, the worked example and the sources below are complete without it.
The gap

Three yields, and only the first one is quoted

Between the number on the cover and the money an investor keeps sit four deductions. None of them is concealed, and none of them appears in the headline.

The first is arithmetic rather than cost. A fund quotes the yield on capital it has lent; you earn it only on capital that has been called. Across a three-year ramp with a residual undrawn balance, a 10.50% asset yield becomes 9.40% measured against committed capital before anyone has charged anything.

The second is the fee schedule, and specifically the base it applies to. A 1.25% management fee is a different instrument depending on whether it is charged on invested capital, on the whole commitment, or on gross assets including the fund's own borrowings. At one turn of leverage the third of those is exactly twice the first, at the same headline rate.

The third is credit. A loss assumption drawn from a benign vintage and one drawn from a full cycle are not the same assumption, and the difference between them routinely exceeds the entire fee load.

The fourth is tax, and in this asset class it is usually the largest single deduction. Private credit return is interest. It is ordinary income in the year it arises, with no deferral, no preferential rate, and — where the fund is characterised as an investor rather than a trader — no deduction for the fees paid to earn it.

Methodology

How the calculation is built

Every figure the instrument reports is produced by the shared Wealth Intelligence engine from the assumptions on screen. Nothing is sampled, fitted, or drawn from fund data.

Order of operations

The model runs one year at a time on your committed capital. Deployment is set first: capital is called linearly over the ramp until the target proportion is invested, and the remainder earns the cash rate you enter. The fund's asset base is deployed equity multiplied by one plus leverage. From that base it earns the stated asset yield; the undrawn balance earns separately. Credit losses are taken next, then interest on the fund's borrowing, then the management fee and fund expenses, then the incentive fee on whatever profit remains above the preferred return. Tax is applied last, to income rather than to cash. What is left is the cash the investor actually holds.

One year, in full

Year one of the default assumption set, on a $10,000,000 commitment: $3,166,667 deployed and $6,833,333 still undrawn. The loans earn $332,500; the undrawn balance earns $273,333; credit losses take $22,167. The management fee is $39,583 and fund expenses $7,917, leaving $536,167 of income.

No incentive fee is due. The preferred return is 7% on the full commitment, or $700,000, and the year's income does not reach it.

Taxable income is $583,667, not $536,167: the fees are added back because they are not deductible on the setting used here. Tax at 45% is $262,650, and the investor ends the year holding $273,517 — a first-year return of 2.74% on committed capital, against a stated asset yield of 10.50%.

Deployment and the undrawn balance

Capital is drawn linearly to the deployment target over the ramp period and stays there. The undrawn balance earns the rate you set, which is the single largest reason a yield on committed capital sits below a yield on invested capital. Nothing here models a capital-call schedule, recycling, or a subscription line; the ramp is a straight line because a straight line is honest about what is being assumed.

Leverage

Fund borrowing is entered as a multiple of investor equity and applied to the deployed base. It multiplies interest income and credit losses in the same proportion, and the cost of the borrowing is taken between them. Leverage therefore raises income measured on committed capital before it costs anything, which is why the decomposition shows it as an addition and then takes the interest expense back off. Where the cost of debt reaches the asset yield, additional leverage subtracts.

Fees and the fee base

The management fee is charged on one of three bases: invested capital, committed capital, or gross assets including the fund's borrowings. The rate is only half of the term. Add one turn of leverage to the default assumption set and move the 1.25% fee from invested capital to gross assets, and the fee load rises by $732,291 over eight years and the real yield falls by 97 basis points — with no change to the headline rate. The incentive fee is applied to income after losses, interest expense and management fees, above a preferred return expressed on committed capital, and is zero in any year that does not clear it. Any feeder or platform layer is charged separately on invested capital.

Credit losses

Loss is the annual default rate multiplied by one minus the recovery, applied to the fund's asset base. Recovery is treated as immediate. This is the input the instrument is most sensitive to and the one a marketing document is least likely to stress, which is why the sensitivity table varies only the default rate and the recovery and holds everything else at your figures.

Tax, and what is deductible

Income is taxed at the ordinary rate you enter, in the year it arises. The rate is a single figure and is intended to carry federal, state and any surcharge together. Whether fund-level fees reduce that income is a real fork, and the model does not choose for you: where the fund is characterised as an investor rather than a trader, its fees are miscellaneous itemised deductions and none is allowed, so they are added back to taxable income; where the activity is a trade or business, they are deducted. On the default assumption set that fork is worth 56 basis points of real yield.

Accrued interest: payment-in-kind and original issue discount

The share of the yield you mark as accruing rather than paying is taxed as it accrues but does not arrive as cash. The instrument tracks the two separately and reports both a real yield and a net cash yield. Where the tax due exceeds the cash distributed, it says so and quantifies what the investor has to fund from elsewhere. On the junior-capital assumption set, a 13% coupon half of which accrues produces a real yield of 3.61% and a net cash yield of −1.80%.

How the yields are expressed

Every stage — stated, on committed capital, after leverage cost, after fees, after losses, after tax — is the total for that stage across the holding period, divided by the years, divided by committed capital. That is a simple average rather than an internal rate of return, and it is used deliberately: it makes the stages additive, so the decomposition subtracts to the answer without a reconciling item. It does not compound, and it does not reward or penalise the timing of distributions within the period.

Limitations

What this model does not do

Each of these is a simplification made on purpose. Where one of them matters to a particular fund, it matters more than anything the instrument computes.

Losses are a rate, not a cycle

The default rate is constant across the holding period. Real credit losses arrive in clusters, and a fund that meets its average through one bad year is not the same investment as one that meets it evenly — the incentive fee in particular behaves differently, because a year of losses does not refund the fees paid in the years before it. The sensitivity table exists because the point estimate should not be trusted on its own.

It models a fund, not a loan book

One yield, one default rate, one recovery. There is no ratings distribution, no maturity ladder, no floating-rate reset, no covenant structure and no concentration. A fund whose result depends on three positions is not described by an average.

No fund, manager or industry data is used

The four assumption sets are named for the shape of the terms they contain. They are not observations of the market, not averages of anything, and not claims about how any manager charges or performs. Every figure in them is yours to replace.

Recovery is immediate and complete

A defaulted loan recovers its stated proportion in the year it defaults. In practice recovery takes years, costs money to obtain, and arrives after the interest has stopped. The model is therefore optimistic about credit in a way that grows with the default rate.

One rate, one character

All income is treated as ordinary and taxed at a single blended rate. That is close to right for most private credit, and wrong for the parts that are not: equity kickers, warrants, original issue discount on a distressed purchase, and any capital gain on a secondary sale are outside it. State apportionment across a multi-state loan book is not modelled.

Distributions are held, not reinvested

Cash received is not re-lent and not reinvested elsewhere, and capital is not returned during the period. The instrument answers what the commitment pays, not what a programme of successive vintages compounds to.

It measures economics, not credit

Nothing here assesses underwriting, documentation, seniority in practice, or a manager's workout record. Those decide whether your loss assumption is the right one. The instrument only applies the assumption you give it, consistently.

Worked example

The premium that survives the round trip

A $10,000,000 commitment, eight years, a 45% ordinary rate, fees not deductible. Two versions of the same private credit fund, against a public credit alternative yielding 5.50% with no fund layer, no ramp and no defaults.

Same investor, same eight years, three sets of assumptions
 Private credit
senior, unlevered
Through a cycle
1× levered, 5% default
Public credit
5.50%, no fund layer
Stated asset yield10.50%10.50%5.50%
Income on committed capital9.40%18.13%5.50%
Interest on fund borrowing$4,655,000
Fees over eight years$1,078,875$1,862,000
Credit losses$465,500$3,657,500
Yield after fees and losses7.47%5.41%5.50%
Tax at 45%$3,139,031$2,786,625$1,980,000
Cash received net of tax$2,839,094$1,543,875$2,420,000
Real yield3.55%1.93%3.02%
Share of the stated yield retained34%18%55%

The private fund is quoted 500 basis points above the public alternative. After the ramp, the fees, a benign 2% default rate at 65% recovery, and the same tax rate on both, 53 basis points of that survive. The public instrument retains 55% of its stated yield because there is nothing between the coupon and the tax; the private fund retains 34%.

The middle column is the same loan book with a loss rate closer to a full cycle, one turn of leverage, and the management fee charged on gross assets. It earns 18.13% on committed capital before costs and delivers 1.93% after them — below the public alternative, on a headline twice its size. The incentive fee is zero in every year, because the fund never clears its preferred return.

Tax is the largest deduction in the first column: $3,139,031 against $1,078,875 of fees. That is a property of the asset class rather than of the manager. The identical book held by a tax-exempt investor returns 7.47%, and the same book with fund fees deductible against ordinary income returns 4.11% rather than 3.55%.

Reading the output

What the four numbers are telling you

01
Stated against committed
The distance between these two is not a fee and nobody charges it. It is the cost of holding capital available for a manager to call. If it is large, the question is about the ramp and the deployment target, and it is answered in the fund's own drawdown history rather than in its yield.
02
Real yield
What the commitment pays after every deduction, expressed on the capital you set aside. This is the number to compare against an alternative — but only against an alternative measured the same way, which is almost never how the two are presented side by side.
03
Net cash
Where this sits below the real yield, part of the return is accruing rather than paying and the tax on it is falling due first. A commitment can be economically sound and still require the investor to write cheques for years. That is a liquidity question, and it belongs in the same conversation as the return.
04
Share retained
The real yield as a proportion of the stated yield. It is the plainest summary of the whole decomposition, and the most useful thing to carry into a manager meeting: not what the fund earns, but what proportion of it reaches the investor who is paying for it.
Sources

The authorities this rests on

Three provisions do the work in the tax layer. They are cited because the model applies them, not to characterise any particular fund.

26 U.S.C. §1272(a)(1) — original issue discount

The holder of a debt instrument having original issue discount must include in gross income the sum of the daily portions of that discount for each day of the taxable year on which the instrument was held. Recognition follows accrual, not receipt, which is why the instrument reports a net cash yield separately from a real yield. Payment-in-kind interest is taxed on the same principle, and the model treats the two together as accruing income.

26 U.S.C. §67(h) and §67(c) — deductibility of investment expenses

Subsection (h) provides that, notwithstanding the two-per-cent floor in subsection (a), no miscellaneous itemised deduction shall be allowed for any taxable year beginning after 31 December 2017. Subsection (c) directs that regulations prohibit the indirect deduction, through pass-through entities, of amounts that would not be allowable if paid directly by an individual. Where a credit fund is characterised as an investor rather than a trader, the effect is that the investor pays the management fee and is taxed on income measured before it — which is the model's default setting, and reversible.

26 U.S.C. §702(b) — character flows through

The character of any item of income, gain, loss, deduction or credit in a partner's distributive share is determined as if the item were realised directly from the source from which the partnership realised it. Interest earned by a fund reaches its partners as interest. That is the provision behind the single most consequential fact in this asset class: there is no structure inside a partnership that converts a loan coupon into anything more favourably taxed.

Nothing here is tax advice, and none of it is jurisdiction-specific beyond the United States federal provisions cited. Rates, characterisation and the treatment of a particular vehicle are questions for your own advisers.

Questions

Questions this instrument answers

What is the real yield on a private credit fund after fees and taxes?
On the worked example above — a 10.50% senior secured book, unlevered, 95% deployed over three years, 2% defaulting at 65% recovery, a 1.25% management fee on invested capital and a 12.5% incentive over a 7% preferred return, taxed at 45% — a $10,000,000 commitment produces a real yield of 3.55% on committed capital and returns 34% of the stated yield to the investor. Change any of those figures and the instrument recomputes it for that case rather than for an average.
Why is the yield on committed capital lower than the yield the fund quotes?
Because the two are measured on different denominators. The fund earns its stated yield on capital it has lent; you have set aside the whole commitment. Across a three-year ramp to a 95% deployment target, with the undrawn balance earning 4%, a 10.50% asset yield becomes 9.40% on committed capital. Nobody charges that 110 basis points, and it does not appear in any fee schedule.
Does fund leverage improve the return to the investor?
Sometimes, and by less than the gross figures suggest. One turn of leverage on the default assumption set raises income on committed capital from 9.40% to 18.13%, but the interest expense, the doubled credit losses and the tax on the larger income take most of it back. If the management fee moves to a gross-asset base at the same time, roughly 97 basis points of the remainder goes with it. Where the cost of the fund's debt approaches the asset yield, leverage subtracts.
What does it mean when the fee is charged on gross assets?
That the base includes money the fund has borrowed as well as money you contributed. At one turn of leverage a 1.25% fee on gross assets is the same as 2.50% on your invested capital — on the example above, $1,662,500 rather than $831,250 over eight years. The rate in the marketing material is unchanged. It is worth reading which base the fund documents actually specify.
Why is private credit taxed so heavily?
Because its return is interest, and interest is ordinary income in the year it arises. There is no deferral, no long-term rate, and under 26 U.S.C. §702(b) no character transformation on the way through a partnership. Where the fund is an investor rather than a trader, §67(h) also denies a deduction for the management fee, so the investor is taxed on income measured before a cost they have paid. On the worked example, tax takes $3,139,031 against $1,078,875 of fees.
What is phantom income in a private credit fund?
Income that is taxable before it is received. Payment-in-kind interest and original issue discount both accrue to principal rather than paying in cash, and §1272(a)(1) requires the holder to include the accrual in gross income as it arises. On the junior-capital assumption set — a 13% coupon, half of it accruing — $4,322,500 of income over eight years never arrives as money, the tax bill exceeds the cash distributed, and the investor is $1,437,015 out of pocket across the life of the commitment.
Is private credit still better than public fixed income after tax?
On the worked example, marginally. A 10.50% private book and a 5.50% public alternative are 500 basis points apart on stated yield and 53 basis points apart after the ramp, the fees, a benign loss assumption and the same 45% rate on both. Under a full-cycle loss assumption with leverage and a gross-asset fee base, the private fund falls below the public one. The comparison is only meaningful when both sides are measured on committed capital after tax, which is not how they are usually presented.
Does holding private credit inside a PPLI policy remove these costs?
It addresses one of the four and leaves the other three untouched. The deployment drag, the manager's fees and the credit losses are unchanged by ownership. The tax layer — the largest deduction on most assumption sets here — is what a different ownership structure acts on, and whether that is worth its own cost is a separate calculation with a genuinely uncertain answer. The PPLI Economics and Break-Even instrument is where that is tested, not here.
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